Ch8. FRM Financial Risk Manager — Final Mock Exam (30 Questions) & Exam Strategy
FRM Master Formula Sheet — Final Review
Market Risk
| Formula | Meaning |
|---|---|
| VaR_n = VaR_1 × √n | Scale daily VaR to n-day |
| GARCH(1,1): σ²ₜ = ω + α·ε²ₜ₋₁ + β·σ²ₜ₋₁ | Conditional variance |
| Long-run variance = ω / (1−α−β) | Mean-reverting level |
| EWMA: λ ≈ 0.94 | Daily volatility (RiskMetrics) |
Credit Risk
| Formula | Meaning |
|---|---|
| EL = PD × LGD × EAD | Expected Loss |
| LGD = 1 − Recovery | Loss in default |
| CDS spread ≈ PD × LGD | Simplified pricing |
Liquidity & Regulatory
| Metric | Formula | Threshold |
|---|---|---|
| LCR | HQLA / 30-day net outflows | ≥ 100% |
| NSFR | ASF / RSF | ≥ 100% |
| CET1 ratio | CET1 / RWA | ≥ 4.5% (+2.5% buffer) |
| Leverage ratio | Tier 1 / Total exposure | ≥ 3% |
Investment Management
| Metric | Formula |
|---|---|
| RAROC | (Revenue − Costs − EL) / Economic Capital |
| Duration Gap | D_A − (L/A) × D_L |
| Sharpe Ratio | (R_p − R_f) / σ_p |
| Information Ratio | α / Tracking Error |
30-Question Final Mock Exam
Market Risk (Q1–8)
Q1. A portfolio has a 1-day 99% VaR of $500K. The 10-day VaR is:
A) 1.58M C) 10.0M
Q2. GARCH(1,1): α + β < 1 implies:
A) Volatility grows without bound
B) Volatility mean-reverts to a long-run level
C) Volatility follows a random walk
D) Volatility decays to zero
Q3. Under FRTB, the Expected Shortfall confidence level is:
A) 95% B) 97.5% C) 99% D) 99.9%
Q4. A VaR model shows 12 exceptions over 250 trading days. The Basel traffic-light zone is:
A) Green B) Amber C) Red D) Orange
Q5. A bond has modified duration 8, convexity 100, rates rise 100bps. Approximate price change:
A) −7.5% B) −8.0% C) −8.5% D) +7.5%
Q6. Which VaR method requires NO distributional assumptions?
A) Variance-covariance B) GARCH C) Historical simulation D) EWMA
Q7. Decreasing λ in EWMA from 0.94 to 0.90 means:
A) Lower weight on recent observations
B) Higher weight on recent observations
C) Equal weight on all observations
D) Slower reaction to market shocks
Q8. In Extreme Value Theory (EVT), the Peaks-Over-Threshold method fits which distribution to exceedances?
A) Normal B) Student-t C) Generalized Pareto (GPD) D) Lognormal
Credit Risk (Q9–15)
Q9. PD = 3%, LGD = 40%, EAD = $50M. Expected Loss is:
A) 600K C) 6.0M
Q10. Under Basel III IRB, regulatory capital protects at what confidence level?
A) 95% B) 99% C) 99.9% D) 99.97%
Q11. In a CDS, the protection buyer:
A) Receives the spread and pays the notional on default
B) Pays the spread and receives the notional on default
C) Pays the notional and receives interest
D) Pays no premium
Q12. CVA is best defined as:
A) The FVA adjustment for funding costs
B) The fair value adjustment reflecting counterparty default risk
C) The DVA adjustment for own default risk
D) The MVA adjustment for initial margin costs
Q13. A zero-coupon bond matures in 1 year, face $100, risk-free rate 4%, CDS spread 200bps (continuous compounding, zero recovery). Its price is:
A) 96.08 C) 98.04
Q14. In a CDO, the senior tranche begins to absorb losses when:
A) Any single underlying defaults
B) Both equity and mezzanine tranches are exhausted
C) The loss rate exceeds the mezzanine attachment point
D) All underlying assets default
Q15. Under A-IRB, which parameter is NOT estimated by the bank internally?
A) PD B) LGD C) EAD D) Asset correlation (ρ)
Operational & Quantitative Risk (Q16–22)
Q16. Under Basel IV SMA, Internal Loss Multiplier (ILM) > 1 when:
A) Internal loss history is below the BIC reference level
B) Internal loss history exceeds the BIC reference level
C) It is always equal to 1
D) Total assets are below a threshold
Q17. The main weakness of the Gaussian copula for CDO modeling is:
A) It is computationally complex
B) It assumes zero tail dependence, underestimating co-movement in crises
C) It requires excessive data
D) It only applies to equities
Q18. GARCH(1,1): ω = 0.000002, α = 0.06, β = 0.92. Long-run variance is:
A) 0.0001 B) 0.00005 C) 0.00001 D) 0.000025
Q19. Negative excess kurtosis in a financial return distribution indicates:
A) Thicker tails than normal
B) Thinner tails than normal (platykurtic)
C) Same tails as normal
D) Negative skewness
Q20. An ARCH effect in equity returns indicates:
A) Serial correlation in returns
B) Volatility clustering
C) Returns are normally distributed
D) Constant volatility
Q21. Under Basel’s seven operational risk event types, an employee discrimination lawsuit falls under:
A) Internal Fraud B) External Fraud C) Employment Practices and Workplace Safety D) Execution, Delivery and Process Management
Q22. Under a normal distribution, Expected Shortfall (ES) at 95% versus VaR at 95%:
A) ES < VaR B) ES = VaR C) ES > VaR D) Always ES = 2 × VaR
Liquidity, Regulatory & Investment Management (Q23–30)
Q23. The LCR haircut for Level 2A HQLA is:
A) 0% B) 15% C) 25% D) 50%
Q24. Under NSFR, which item carries a 100% ASF factor?
A) Short-term wholesale funding (<3 months)
B) Long-term debt with maturity ≥ 1 year
C) Illiquid assets
D) Commercial paper
Q25. Duration Gap = +3 years, Total Assets = $2B. Interest rates rise 50bps. Change in economic equity:
A) −30M C) +10M
Q26. A bank business unit has RAROC of 14% and cost of equity of 12%. This means:
A) The unit carries excessive risk
B) The unit creates shareholder value
C) Regulatory capital is insufficient
D) Economic capital should be reduced
Q27. Portfolio annual return 12%, risk-free rate 4%, tracking error 8%, alpha 2%. Information Ratio is:
A) 0.25 B) 0.40 C) 0.53 D) 1.00
Q28. Correcting for survivorship bias in hedge fund databases will:
A) Increase average reported returns
B) Decrease average reported returns
C) Have no effect on returns
D) Increase return volatility
Q29. The convexity condition (C_A > C_L) in full immunization ensures:
A) Higher asset yields
B) Asset value exceeds liability value after large rate moves
C) Reduced leverage
D) Duration is set to zero
Q30. G-SIBs face a leverage ratio requirement that is:
A) Lower than the 3% standard B) Equal to 3%
C) Higher than 3% D) Not applicable
Answer Key
| Q | Answer | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | B | 500K × 3.162 = $1.58M |
| 2 | B | α + β < 1 → variance mean-reverts to ω/(1−α−β) |
| 3 | B | FRTB ES at 97.5% (not 99% VaR) |
| 4 | C | 12 exceptions in 250 days → Red zone (>10) |
| 5 | A | −8×0.01 + ½×100×(0.01)² = −0.08 + 0.005 = −7.5% |
| 6 | C | Historical simulation uses actual past returns; no distribution assumed |
| 7 | B | Lower λ → higher (1−λ) → more weight on recent returns |
| 8 | C | POT method → Generalized Pareto Distribution |
| 9 | B | EL = 0.03 × 0.40 × 600K** |
| 10 | C | Basel IRB: 99.9% confidence, 1-year horizon |
| 11 | B | Protection buyer: pays spread → receives notional on credit event |
| 12 | B | CVA = fair value reduction for counterparty default risk |
| 13 | A | P = 100 × e^(−0.06) = $94.18 |
| 14 | B | Waterfall: equity absorbs first, mezzanine second → senior only after both exhausted |
| 15 | D | Asset correlation (ρ) is set by Basel regulations, not bank-estimated |
| 16 | B | ILM > 1 when actual internal losses exceed the BIC benchmark |
| 17 | B | Gaussian copula: zero tail dependence → underestimates crisis co-movement |
| 18 | A | LR variance = 0.000002/(1−0.06−0.92) = 0.000002/0.02 = 0.0001 |
| 19 | B | Negative excess kurtosis = platykurtic (thinner tails) |
| 20 | B | ARCH effect = volatility clustering (calm/turbulent periods) |
| 21 | C | Discrimination = Employment Practices and Workplace Safety |
| 22 | C | ES = average loss beyond VaR threshold → always ES > VaR |
| 23 | B | Level 2A HQLA: 15% haircut |
| 24 | B | Long-term debt ≥1 year: ASF 100% |
| 25 | B | ΔE = −3 × 30M** |
| 26 | B | RAROC (14%) > CoE (12%) → shareholder value created |
| 27 | A | IR = 2%/8% = 0.25 |
| 28 | B | Removing survivorship bias includes failed funds → average returns decrease |
| 29 | B | Convexity cushion ensures assets > liabilities for large parallel rate shifts |
| 30 | C | G-SIBs: 3% + G-SIB surcharge → higher than 3% |
FRM Exam Day Strategy
The Night Before
- Review the formula sheet only — no new material
- Replace HP 12C / BAII Plus calculator batteries
- Confirm venue, bring valid ID and printed admission ticket
Exam Day (4 hours per part, 80 questions each)
- Pace: ~3 minutes per question; flag and return on tough ones
- Calculation questions: write the formula first, then substitute
- Regulatory questions: focus on the number (4.5%, 6%, 8%, 3%, 72.5%)
Obtaining the FRM Certification
- Pass Part I (quantitative foundations)
- Pass Part II (applied risk management)
- Maintain GARP membership
- Demonstrate 2 years of relevant professional risk management experience
- Submit to GARP → FRM Certification awarded
FRM Financial Risk Manager series complete! Best of luck on your exam!
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